Originally Posted by
b0redom
Really? Why is it ever considered a good idea? Basically you're saying to someone if you live in an area in subsidised (by everyone else) housing for a long time, we'll let you buy the house at a massive discount (which no one else will get the chance to do). How is that fair?
But then even in an ideal world, the council/government ends up picking up the bill for the difference as the RTB properties aren't sold at market rate, they're sold at a massive discount.
I don't understand how this happens. Surely it can only happen if a landlord buys it from whoever bought it as a RTB?
When I graduated I lived in shared rented accommodation. Then I moved to single rented accommodation, then, eventually I bought my own place. Should I be entitled to buy the flats I rented at a discount because I rented them for a long time?
Fortunately I've never had need of social accommodation, but I just don't understand why anyone thinks it's reasonable to sell a house at a massive discount to someone who's rented it for a long time. It just stinks of a bribe to me.
Not sure I agree here either. You either provide social housing or you don't. If you don't then that's a valid stand point. If you do, that is also a valid stand point. Neither gel with, oh you can rent it for a bit then we'll let you buy it off us at a massive discount.
What seems to have happened somewhere along the line is that long term tenants (and there's nothing inherently wrong with being a long term tenant) seem to have formed the opinion that the house is 'theirs'. In my opinion, it isn't and it shouldn't be.