Originally Posted by
Saracen
What I was getting at was that IF we accept the premise that abusers abuse because they were abused as kids themselves, then in a legal sense, their guilt is questionable. The actus reas exist, but the mens rea? Not if such behaviour is involuntary, and due to factors beyond their control, be it genetic makeup, childhood abuse, or both.
However, if that premise is true, then in the absence of an effective treatment known to work, do such individuals need to be detained because their abusing is involuntary, and if they do it, innocent kids will become victims?