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Anyhting that involves Fourier is gay. Everyone knows this. But...
Got the a0 term:Quote:
Compute the Fourier series representation of
f(x) = exp(ax), -pi <= x < pi.
(sinh(a*pi))/(a*pi)
For an and bn i just keep going roun in circles for the integration by parts and splitting it up with different limits, evena nd odd functions etc isnt helping :(
Any ideas?
If I understood what that meant, I'd help. But I dont, so i suggest teh following:
Click Here :P
Sorry, had to be done
Cheer for the useful replies :p
Still as clueless as i was before tbh.
Ok..well its to do with the exponential trig identities.
(im an engineer so j is imaginary...learn to cope with it :p)
cos(nx) = { exp(jnx) + exp(-jnx) } / 2
and equivalent for sin,
and
exp(pi*j) = -1
(and exp(-pi*j) = 1)
but still i just get a mass of crap and i dont really know how to simplify it...
MATHS IS OFFICIALLY TEH GAY!!!!1111
all that says is cos(pi*i) = 0, which im not sure is true anyway.
what you actually mean is the integral -pi to pi is 0, whcih is not the same
writing it out, its not that difficult an integration, use the exponential identites, multiply by your initially function (rembering that exp(ax)*exp(bx) = exp((a+b)x) and it really isnt that difficult to integrate.
Where did you get that from? stupid maths person :p ;)Quote:
Originally Posted by herulach
...?Quote:
what you actually mean is the integral -pi to pi is 0, whcih is not the same
What?
integral of what? integral of sin is 0 yeah...as is cos...
its not the integration part that screws me over...its once you have done that, put in the limits...simplifying it seems to be beyond me :(
Cheers for the advice anyway.