Originally Posted by
Saracen
All of that justifies why people are upset at high prices, but none of it, at least in isolation, is sufficient evidence either of cartel or price-fixing.
For instance IF prices went up because a limited number of suppliers are abusing oligopoly power in an overt agreement, we have price fixing. But IF, on the other hand, prices went up because :-
a) demand shot up suddenly due to, say, bitcoin mining denanding boards, AND
b) production cannot be increased sufficiently in the short-term to satisfy demand, OR
c) production could be increased but each oligopoly supplier decides independently that, for now, their interests are best served by not increasing production ....
then .... it isn't price-fixing, On the other hand, if those companies explicitly colluded either to maintain high prices, or to restrict production, then it is. Well, it is unless either the oligopoly players are not subject to price-fixing laws (like nation-states acting under international treaty) or companies acting within a statutory exemption (which the DRAM market is not).
That is to say, high prices are an objective of price-fixing but high prices, by themselves, are not sufficient to establish that price-fixing has occurred. It's not sbout what prices are, but why the prices are ehat they are.