Same here, haven't read it but from what I've heard, critics report him as saying all Arabs are this that and the other when what he said was that some Arab regimes were this that and the other. If his comments (which were actually a reprint from last April) were about Arab regimes - and not Arabs as individuals - he's not wrong, is he? I realise that Iran is not an Arab country but they are often included 'cos they are in that part of the world and as far as I know, the three main "accusations" can be found in one or more Arab countries.
To top it all, the exact same article written last April raised no comment but this time there must have been a slow news day anda lot of touchy people about.