Originally Posted by
Saracen
Not according to a Latin-speaking (though perhaps rusty) friend of mine.
His comment, as best I can remember, is that "noli" and "nolite" are both imperative forms, but "nolite" is the form of the verb you'd use if it was a negative plural. In other words, if the imperative of "noli" referred to the nothis, you'd be correct in that it was the second person plural of the negative imperative, but as it refers to the reader, in the second person singular negative imperative, it should be "noli". In other words, it's an imperative to the reader, not the "nothis".