Someone at work recently crashed their car and got injured.
The person was driving home carrying 7 people including him, in a car which only carries 5 so he is breaking the law there.
He is driving home along a 60 mile an hour road at night, its a by pass which I think doesnt have lights on. The road has
good visibility and no blind corners and then this happens.
He suddenly sees a bloke standing in the middle of the road waving his arms, he breaks but isnt going to stop in time so he
goes around him (no oncoming traffic) and then pull back into the left hand lane and smacks into a car.
There had been an accident before and this is the scene. The person i work with driving down the road, in front of him
is the waving arms bloke, behind him (further along the road) is his car and further still is the car which was involved in the
previous accident and has now been hit again.
work-person----wavy arms--wavy arms car----crashed into car
[oo> ---------------?-----------[oo>------------[oo>
Does that make sense so far?
Now you would think OK its the work persons fault, however neither the two other cars had their light on at all
let alone hazards. Wavy arms mans car is perfectly fine no reason not to have the lights on the other already
crashed into car wasnt that badly damaged so in all probability the lights should still have worked.
Apparently work colleagues insurance company say its his fault and he has to claim off his insurance.
To me this shouldnt be his fault but what do you think?
Can him claim any injury money off his own insurance?